Tech Arsenal 1/Tech Arsenal (Arsenal Computer).ISO/tek-20/pools.zip/EL3A.ASC

Text File | 1991-12-13 | 100KB | 2,670 lines

3AA-1.1 What is the ++++control point++++ of an amateur station?
   A. The location at which the control operator function is
performed
   B. The operating position of any amateur station operating as
a repeater user station
   C. The physical location of any Amateur Radio transmitter,
even if it is operated by radio link from some other location
   D. The variable frequency oscillator (VFO) of the transmitter

3AA-1.2 What is the term for the location at which the control
operator function is performed?
   A. The operating desk
   B. The control point
   C. The station location
   D. The manual control location

3AA-2.1 (This question has been withdrawn.)
What are the HF privileges authorized to a Technician
class control operator in ITU Region 2?
   A. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when
terrestrial station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside
Region 2), 14,100 to 14,150 kHz, 21,100 to 21,150 kHz, and 28,100
to 28,150 kHz only
   B. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when
station location is outside Region 2), 21,100 to 21,200 kHz, and
28,100 to 28,500 kHz only
   C. 28,000 to 29,700 kHz only
   D. 3700 to 3750 kHz, 7100 to 7150 kHz (7050 to 7075 kHz when
terrestrial station location is in Alaska or Hawaii or outside
Region 2), and 21,100 to 21,200 kHz only

3AA-2.2 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 52.525
MHz?
   A. Extra, Advanced only
   B. Extra, Advanced, General only
   C. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
   D. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice

3AA-2.3 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 146.52
MHz?
   A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
   B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
   C. Extra, Advanced, General only
   D. Extra, Advanced only

3AA-2.4 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 223.50
MHz?
   A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
   B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
   C. Extra, Advanced, General only
   D. Extra, Advanced only

3AA-2.5 Which operator licenses authorize privileges on 446.0
MHz?
   A. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician, Novice
   B. Extra, Advanced, General, Technician only
   C. Extra, Advanced, General only
   D. Extra, Advanced only

3AA-3.1 How often do amateur service licenses generally need to
be renewed?
   A. Every 10 years
   B. Every 5 years
   C. Every 2 years
   D. They are lifetime licenses

3AA-3.2 The FCC currently issues amateur licenses carrying 10-
year terms.  What is the "grace period" during which the FCC will
renew an expired 10-year license?
   A. 2 years
   B. 5 years
   C. 10 years
   D. There is no grace period

3AA-3.3 What action would you take to modify your
operator/primary station license?
   A. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the FCC in
Gettysburg, PA
   B. Properly fill out FCC Form 610 and send it to the nearest
FCC field office
   C. Write the FCC at their nearest field office
   D. There is no need to modify an amateur license between
renewals

3AA-4.1 On what frequencies within the 6-meter wavelength band
may FM phone emissions be transmitted?
   A. 50.0-54.0 MHz only
   B. 50.1-54.0 MHz only
   C. 51.0-54.0 MHz only
   D. 52.0-54.0 MHz only

3AA-4.2 On what frequencies within the 2-meter wavelength band
may FM image emissions be transmitted?
   A. 144.1-148.0 MHz only
   B. 146.0-148.0 MHz only
   C. 144.0-148.0 MHz only
   D. 146.0-147.0 MHz only

3AA-4.3 What emission type may always be used for station
identification, regardless of the transmitting frequency?
   A. CW
   B. RTTY
   C. MCW
   D. Phone

3AA-5.1 If you are using a frequency within a band designated to
the amateur service on a ++++secondary basis++++ and another station
assigned to a primary service on that band causes interference,
what action should you take?
   A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the
interference
   B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the
interference
   C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the
interference
   D. Change frequencies; you may also be causing interference to
the other station and that would be a violation of FCC rules

3AA-5.2 What is the basic principle of frequency sharing between
two stations allocated to a primary service within a frequency
band, but each in a different ITU Region or Subregion?
   A. The station with a control operator holding a lesser class
of license must yield the frequency to the station with a control
operator holding a higher class license
   B. The station with a lower power output must yield the
frequency to the station with a higher power output
   C. Both stations have an equal right to operate on the
frequency
   D. Stations in ITU Regions 1 and 3 must yield the frequency to
stations in ITU Region 2

3AA-6-1.1 FCC Rules specify the maximum transmitter power that
you may use with your amateur station.  At what point in your
station is the transmitter power measured?
   A. By measuring the final amplifier supply voltage inside the
transmitter or amplifier
   B. By measuring the final amplifier supply current inside the
transmitter or amplifier
   C. At the antenna terminals of the transmitter or amplifier
   D. On the antenna itself, after the feed line

3AA-6-1.2 What is the term used to define the average power
supplied to the antenna transmission line during one RF cycle at
the crest of the modulation envelope?
   A. Peak transmitter power
   B. Peak output power
   C. Average radio-frequency power
   D. Peak envelope power

3AA-6-2.1 Notwithstanding the numerical limitations in the FCC
Rules, how much transmitting power shall be used by an amateur
station?
   A. There is no regulation other than the numerical limits
   B. The minimum power level required to achieve S9 signal
reports
   C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired
communication
   D. The maximum power available, as long as it is under the
allowable limit

3AA-6-3.1 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station on 146.52 MHz?
   A. 200 watts PEP output
   B. 500 watts ERP
   C. 1000 watts DC input
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

3AA-6-4.1 What is the maximum transmitting power permitted an
amateur station in beacon operation?
   A. 10 watts PEP output
   B. 100 watts PEP output
   C. 500 watts PEP output
   D. 1500 watts PEP output

3AA-7-1.1 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY
transmission between 28 and 50 MHz?
   A. 56 kilobauds
   B. 19.6 kilobauds
   C. 1200 bauds
   D. 300 bauds

3AA-7-1.2 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY
transmission between 50 and 220 MHz?
   A. 56 kilobauds
   B. 19.6 kilobauds
   C. 1200 bauds
   D. 300 bauds

3AA-7-1.3 What is the maximum sending speed permitted for a RTTY
transmission above 220 MHz?
   A. 300 bauds
   B. 1200 bauds
   C. 19.6 kilobauds
   D. 56 kilobauds

3AA-7-2.1 What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY
when transmitted below 50 MHz?
   A. 100 Hz
   B. 500 Hz
   C. 1000 Hz
   D. 5000 Hz

3AA-7-2.2 What is the maximum frequency shift permitted for RTTY
when transmitted above 50 MHz?
   A. 100 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
   B. 500 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is greater
   C. The FCC rules do not specify a maximum frequency shift
above 50 MHz
   D. 5000 Hz or the sending speed, in bauds, whichever is
greater

3AA-7-3.1 What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of an RTTY,
data or multiplexed emission using a specified digital code
within the frequency range of 50 to 220 MHz?
   A. 20 kHz
   B. 50 kHz
   C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-
sideband emission
   D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW
emission

3AA-7-3.2 What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of an RTTY,
data or multiplexed emission using an unspecified digital code
within the frequency range of 220 to 450 MHz?
   A. 50 kHz
   B. 150 kHz
   C. 200 kHz
   D. 100 kHz

3AA-7-3.3 What is the maximum authorized bandwidth of an RTTY,
data or multiplexed emission using an unspecified digital code
within the 420 to 450 MHz amateur band?
   A. 50 kHz
   B. 200 kHz
   C. 300 kHz
   D. 100 kHz

3AA-8-1.1 How must a control operator who has a Novice license
and a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination for
Technician privileges identify the station when transmitting on
146.34 MHz?
   A. The new Technician may not operate on 146.34 until his or
her new license arrives
   B. The licensee gives his or her call sign, followed by any
suitable word that denotes the slant mark and the identifier "KT"
   C. No special form of identification is needed
   D. The licensee gives his or her call sign and states the
location of the VE examination where he or she obtained the
certificate of successful completion

3AA-8-2.1 Which language(s) must be used when making the station
identification by telephony?
   A. The language being used for the contact may be used if it
is not English, providing the US has a third-party communications
agreement with that country
   B. English must be used for identification
   C. Any language may be used, if the country which uses that
language is a member of the International Telecommunication Union
   D. The language being used for the contact must be used for
identification purposes

3AA-8-3.1 What does the FCC recommend to aid correct station
identification when using ++++phone++++?
   A. A speech compressor
   B. Q signals
   C. A recognized phonetic alphabet
   D. Unique words of the operator's choice

3AA-9-1.1 What is the term used to describe an amateur station
transmitting communications for the purpose of observation of
propagation and reception or other related experimental
activities?
   A. Beacon operation
   B. Repeater operation
   C. Auxiliary operation
   D. Radio control operation

3AA-9-2.1 What class of amateur operator license must you hold to
operate a beacon station?
   A. Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
   B. General, Advanced or Amateur Extra class
   C. Amateur Extra class only
   D. Any license class

3AA-10.1 What is the maximum transmitter power an amateur station
is permitted when transmitting signals to control a model craft?
   A. One watt
   B. One milliwatt
   C. Two watts
   D. Three watts

3AA-10.2 What minimum information must be indicated on the label
affixed to a transmitter transmitting signals to control a model
craft?
   A. Station call sign
   B. Station call sign and operating times
   C. Station call sign and the station licensee's name and
address
   D. Station call sign, class of license, and operating times

3AA-10.3 What are the station identification requirements for an
amateur station transmitting signals to control a model craft?
   A. Once every ten minutes, and at the beginning and end of
each transmission
   B. Once every ten minutes
   C. At the beginning and end of each transmission
   D. Station identification is not required provided that a
label indicating the station call sign and the station licensee's
name and address is affixed to the station transmitter

3AA-10.4 Where must the writing indicating the station call sign
and the licensee's name and address be affixed in order to
operate under the special rules for radio control of remote model
craft and vehicles?
   A. It must be in the operator's possession
   B. It must be affixed to the transmitter
   C. It must be affixed to the craft or vehicle
   D. It must be filed with the nearest FCC Field Office

3AA-11-1.1 If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference
to another amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has
coordinated (recommends) the operation of one station and not the
other, who is primarily responsible for resolving the
interference?
   A. The licensee of the non-coordinated (unrecommended)
repeater
   B. Both repeater licensees
   C. The licensee of the coordinated (recommended) repeater
   D. The frequency coordinator

3AA-11-1.2 If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference
to another amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has
coordinated (recommends) the operation of both stations, who is
primarily responsible for resolving the interference?
   A. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated for
the longest period of time
   B. Both repeater licensees
   C. The licensee of the repeater which has been coordinated the
most recently
   D. The frequency coordinator

3AA-11-1.3 If an amateur repeater is causing harmful interference
to another amateur repeater and a frequency coordinator has not
coordinated the operation of either station, who is primarily
responsible for resolving the interference?
   A. Both repeater licensees
   B. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation
for the longest period of time
   C. The licensee of the repeater which has been in operation
for the shortest period of time
   D. The frequency coordinator

3AA-11-2.1 Under what circumstances does the FCC declare a
temporary state of communication emergency?
   A. When a declaration of war is received from Congress
   B. When the maximum usable frequency goes above 28 MHz
   C. When communications facilities in Washington, DC, are
disrupted
   D. When a disaster disrupts normal communications systems in a
particular area

3AA-11-2.2 By what means should a request for a declaration of a
temporary state of communication emergency be initiated?
   A. Communication with the FCC Engineer-In-Charge of the
affected area
   B. Communication with the US senator or congressman for the
area affected
   C. Communication with the local Emergency Coordinator
   D. Communication with the Chief of the FCC Private Radio
Bureau

3AA-11-2.3 What information is included in an FCC declaration of
a temporary state of communication emergency?
   A. Designation of the areas affected and of organizations
authorized to use radio communications in the affected area
   B. Designation of amateur frequency bands for use only by
amateurs participating in emergency communications in the
affected area, and complete suspension of Novice operating
privileges for the duration of the emergency
   C. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed
during the communication emergency
   D. Suspension of amateur rules regarding station
identification and business communication

3AA-11-2.4 If a disaster disrupts normal communication systems in
an area where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC, what
kinds of transmissions are authorized to amateur stations in such
an area?
   A. Communications which are necessary to meet essential
communication needs and facilitate relief actions
   B. Communications which allow a commercial business to
continue to operate in the affected area
   C. Communications for which material compensation has been
paid to the amateur operator for delivery into the affected area
   D. Communications which are to be used for program production
or newsgathering for broadcasting purposes

3AA-12.1 What is meant by the term ++++broadcasting++++?
   A. Transmissions intended for reception by the general public,
either direct or relayed
   B. Retransmission by automatic means of programs or signals
emanating from any class of station other than amateur
   C. The transmission of any one-way radio communication,
regardless of purpose or content
   D. Any one-way or two-way radio communication involving more
than two stations

3AA-12.2 Which of the following is an amateur station that cannot
automatically retransmit radio signals of other amateur stations?
   A. Auxiliary station
   B. Repeater station
   C. Beacon station
   D. Space station

3AA-12.3 Which of the following is an amateur station that is
permitted to automatically retransmit radio signals of other
amateur stations?
   A. Beacon station
   B. Space station
   C. Official bulletin station
   D. RACES station

3AA-12.4 What type of radio signals may be directly retransmitted
by an amateur station?
   A. AM radio station
   B. Police or fire department radio station
   C. NOAA weather station
   D. US Government communications between the space shuttle and
associated Earth stations with prior approval from the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)

3AA-12.5 When may US Government communications between the space
shuttle and associated Earth stations be directly retransmitted
by an amateur station?
   A. After prior approval has been obtained from the FCC in
Washington, DC
   B. No radio stations other than amateur may be retransmitted
in the amateur service
   C. After prior approval has been obtained from the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
   D. After prior approval has been obtained from the nearest FCC
Engineer-In-Charge

3AA-13.1 What kinds of one-way communications by amateur stations
are not considered broadcasting?
   A. All types of one-way communications by amateurs are
considered by the FCC as broadcasting
   B. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, emergency
communications, information bulletins consisting solely of
subject matter of direct interest to the amateur service, and
telegraphy practice
   C. Only code-practice transmissions conducted simultaneously
on all available amateur bands below 30 MHz and conducted for
more than 40 hours per week are not considered broadcasting
   D. Only actual emergency communications during a declared
communications emergency are exempt

3AA-13.2 Which of the following one-way communications may not be
transmitted in the amateur service?
   A. Transmissions to remotely control a device at a distant
location
   B. Transmissions to assist persons learning or improving their
proficiency in Morse code
   C. Brief transmissions to make adjustments to the station
   D. Transmission of music

3AA-13.3 What kinds of one-way information bulletins may be
transmitted by amateur stations?
   A. NOAA weather bulletins
   B. Commuter traffic reports from local radio stations
   C. Regularly scheduled announcements concerning Amateur Radio
equipment for sale or trade
   D. Messages directed only to amateur operators consisting
solely of subject matter of direct interest to the amateur
service

3AA-13.4 What types of one-way amateur communications may be
transmitted by an amateur station?
   A. Beacon operation, radio control, code practice,
retransmission of other services
   B. Beacon operation, radio control, transmitting an
unmodulated carrier, NOAA weather bulletins
   C. Beacon operation, remote control of a device, information
bulletins consisting solely of subject matter of direct interest
to the amateur service, telegraphy practice and emergency
communications
   D. Beacon operation, emergency-drill-practice transmissions,
automatic retransmission of NOAA weather transmissions, code
practice

3AA-14.1 What types of material compensation, if any, may be
involved in third-party traffic transmitted by an amateur
station?
   A. Payment of an amount agreed upon by the amateur operator
and the parties involved
   B. Assistance in maintenance of auxiliary station equipment
   C. Donation of amateur equipment to the control operator
   D. No compensation may be accepted

3AA-14.2 What types of business communications, if any, may be
transmitted by an amateur station on behalf of a third party?
   A. The FCC rules specifically prohibit communications with a
business for any reason
   B. Business communications involving the sale of Amateur Radio
equipment
   C. Communications to a business may be provided during an
emergency as provided by the FCC rules
   D. Business communications aiding a broadcast station

3AA-14.3 Does the FCC allow third-party messages when
communicating with Amateur Radio operators in a foreign country?
   A. Third-party messages with a foreign country are only
allowed on behalf of other amateurs.
   B. Yes, provided the third-party message involves the
immediate family of one of the communicating amateurs
   C. Under no circumstances may US amateurs exchange third-party
messages with an amateur in a foreign country
   D. Yes, when communicating with a person in a country with
which the US shares a third-party agreement

3AA-15.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may a third party
participate in radio communications from an amateur station if
the third party is ineligible to be a control operator of one of
the stations?
   A. A control operator must be present at the control point and
continuously monitor and supervise the third party participation.
Also, contacts may only be made with amateurs in the US and
countries with which the US has a third-party communications
agreement
   B. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor
and supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with
the rules only if contacts are made with amateurs in countries
with which the US has no third-party traffic agreement
   C. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor
and supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with
the rules.  In addition, the control operator must key the
transmitter and make the station identification.
   D. A control operator must be present and continuously monitor
and supervise the radio communication to ensure compliance with
the rules.  In addition, if contacts are made on frequencies
below 30 MHz, the control operator must transmit the call signs
of both stations involved in the contact at 10-minute intervals

3AA-15.2 Where must the control operator be situated when a third
party is participating in radio communications from an amateur
station?
   A. If a radio remote control is used, the control operator may
be physically separated from the control point, when provisions
are incorporated to shut off the transmitter by remote control
   B. If the control operator supervises the third party until he
or she is satisfied of the competence of the third party, the
control operator may leave the control point
   C. The control operator must be present at the control point
   D. If the third party holds a valid radiotelegraph license
issued by the FCC, no supervision is necessary

3AA-15.3 What must the control operator do while a third party is
participating in radio communications?
   A. If the third party holds a valid commercial radiotelegraph
license, no supervision is necessary
   B. The control operator must tune up and down 5 kHz from the
transmitting frequency on another receiver, to ensure that no
interference is taking place
   C. If a radio control link is available, the control operator
may leave the room
   D. The control operator must continuously monitor and
supervise the third party's participation

3AA-15.4 In an exchange of international third-party
communications, when is the station identification procedure
required?
   A. Only at the beginning of the communications
   B. At the end of each exchange of communications
   C. The station identification procedure is not required during
international third-party communications
   D. Only at the end of multiple exchanges of communications

3AA-16.1 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radio communications containing obscene words?
   A. Obscene words are permitted when they do not cause
interference to any other radio communication or signal
   B. Obscene words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
   C. Obscene words are permitted when they are not retransmitted
through repeater or auxiliary stations
   D. Obscene words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule
among amateurs that they should not be used on the air

3AA-16.2 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radio communications containing indecent words?
   A. Indecent words are permitted when they do not cause
interference to any other radio communication or signal
   B. Indecent words are permitted when they are not
retransmitted through repeater or auxiliary stations
   C. Indecent words are permitted, but there is an unwritten
rule among amateurs that they should not be used on the air
   D. Indecent words are prohibited in Amateur Radio
transmissions

3AA-16.3 Under what circumstances, if any, may an amateur station
transmit radio communications containing profane words?
   A. Profane words are permitted when they are not retransmitted
through repeater or auxiliary stations
   B. Profane words are permitted, but there is an unwritten rule
among amateurs that they should not be used on the air
   C. Profane words are prohibited in Amateur Radio transmissions
   D. Profane words are permitted when they do not cause
interference to any other radio communication or signal

3AA-17.1 Which of the following VHF/UHF bands may not be used by
Earth stations for satellite communications?
   A. 6 meters
   B. 2 meters
   C. 1.25 meters
   D. 70 centimeters

3AB-1.1 What is the meaning of: "Your report is five seven..."?
   A. Your signal is perfectly readable and moderately strong
   B. Your signal is perfectly readable, but weak
   C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty
   D. Your signal is perfectly readable with near pure tone

3AB-1.2 What is the meaning of: "Your report is three three..."?
   A. The contact is serial number thirty-three
   B. The station is located at latitude 33 degrees
   C. Your signal is readable with considerable difficulty and
weak in strength
   D. Your signal is unreadable, very weak in strength

3AB-1.3 What is the meaning of: "Your report is five nine plus 20
dB..."?
   A. Your signal strength has increased by a factor of 100
   B. Repeat your transmission on a frequency 20 kHz higher
   C. The bandwidth of your signal is 20 decibels above linearity
   D. A relative signal-strength meter reading is 20 decibels
greater than strength 9

3AB-2-1.1 How should a QSO be initiated through a station in
repeater operation?
   A. Say "breaker, breaker 79"
   B. Call the desired station and then identify your own station
   C. Call "CQ" three times and identify three times
   D. Wait for a "CQ" to be called and then answer it

3AB-2-1.2 Why should users of a station in repeater operation
pause briefly between transmissions?
   A. To check the SWR of the repeater
   B. To reach for pencil and paper for third-party
communications
   C. To listen for any hams wanting to break in
   D. To dial up the repeater's autopatch

3AB-2-1.3 Why should users of a station in repeater operation
keep their transmissions short and thoughtful?
   A. A long transmission may prevent someone with an emergency
from using the repeater
   B. To see if the receiving station operator is still awake
   C. To give any non-hams that are listening a chance to respond
   D. To keep long-distance charges down

3AB-2-1.4 What is the proper procedure to break into an on-going
QSO through a station in repeater operation?
   A. Wait for the end of a transmission and start calling
   B. Shout, "break, break!" to show that you're eager to join
the conversation
   C. Turn on your 100-watt amplifier and override whoever is
talking
   D. Send your call sign during a break between transmissions

3AB-2-1.5 What is the purpose of repeater operation?
   A. To cut your power bill by using someone's higher power
system
   B. To enable mobile and low-power stations to extend their
usable range
   C. To reduce your telephone bill
   D. To call the ham radio distributor 50 miles away

3AB-2-1.6 What is meant by "making the repeater time out"?
   A. The repeater's battery supply has run out
   B. The repeater's transmission time limit has expired during a
single transmission
   C. The warranty on the repeater duplexer has expired
   D. The repeater is in need of repairs

3AB-2-1.7 During commuting rush hours, which types of operation
should relinquish the use of the repeater?
   A. Mobile operators
   B. Low-power stations
   C. Highway traffic information nets
   D. Third-party communications nets

3AB-2-2.1 Why should simplex be used where possible instead of
using a station in repeater operation?
   A. Farther distances can be reached
   B. To avoid long distance toll charges
   C. To avoid tying up the repeater unnecessarily
   D. To permit the testing of the effectiveness of your antenna

3AB-2-2.2 When a frequency conflict arises between a simplex
operation and a repeater operation, why does good amateur
practice call for the simplex operation to move to another
frequency?
   A. The repeater's output power can be turned up to ruin the
front end of the station in simplex operation
   B. There are more repeaters than simplex operators
   C. Changing the repeater's frequency is not practical
   D. Changing a repeater frequency requires the authorization of
the Federal Communications Commission

3AB-2-3.1 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 2-meter wavelength band?
   A. 1 MHz
   B. 1.6 MHz
   C. 170 Hz
   D. 0.6 MHz

3AB-2-3.2 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
stations in repeater operation in the 70-centimeter band?
   A. 1.6 MHz
   B. 5 MHz
   C. 600 kHz
   D. 5 kHz

3AB-2-3.3 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
a 6-meter station in repeater operation?
   A. 1 MHz
   B. 600 kHz
   C. 1.6 MHz
   D. 20 kHz

3AB-2-3.4 What is the usual input/output frequency separation for
a 1.25-meter station in repeater operation?
   A. 1000 kHz
   B. 600 kHz
   C. 1600 kHz
   D. 1.6 GHz

3AB-2-4.1 What is a ++++repeater frequency coordinator++++?
   A. Someone who coordinates the assembly of a repeater station
   B. Someone who provides advice on what kind of system to buy
   C. The club's repeater trustee
   D. A person or group that recommends frequency pairs for
repeater usage

3AB-3.1 Why should local amateur communications be conducted on
VHF and UHF frequencies?
   A. To minimize interference on HF bands capable of long-
distance sky-wave communication
   B. Because greater output power is permitted on VHF and UHF
   C. Because HF transmissions are not propagated locally
   D. Because absorption is greater at VHF and UHF frequencies

3AB-3.2 How can on-the-air transmissions be minimized during a
lengthy transmitter testing or loading up procedure?
   A. Choose an unoccupied frequency
   B. Use a dummy antenna
   C. Use a non-resonant antenna
   D. Use a resonant antenna that requires no loading up
procedure

3AB-3.3 What is the proper Q signal to use to determine whether a
frequency is in use before making a transmission?
   A. QRV?
   B. QRU?
   C. QRL?
   D. QRZ?

3AB-4.1 What is the proper distress calling procedure when using
telephony?
   A. Transmit MAYDAY
   B. Transmit QRRR
   C. Transmit QRZ
   D. Transmit SOS

3AB-4.2 What is the proper distress calling procedure when using
telegraphy?
   A. Transmit MAYDAY
   B. Transmit QRRR
   C. Transmit QRZ
   D. Transmit SOS

3AB-5-1.1 What is one requirement you must meet before you can
participate in RACES drills?
   A. You must be registered with ARRL
   B. You must be registered with a local racing organization
   C. You must be registered with the responsible civil defense
organization
   D. You need not register with anyone to operate RACES

3AB-5-1.2 What is the maximum amount of time allowed per week for
RACES drills?
   A. Eight hours
   B. One hour
   C. As many hours as you want
   D. Six hours, but not more than one hour per day

3AB-5-2.1 How must you identify messages sent during a RACES
drill?
   A. As emergency messages
   B. As amateur traffic
   C. As official government messages
   D. As drill or test messages

3AB-6-1.1 What is the term used to describe first-response
communications in an emergency situation?
   A. Tactical communications
   B. Emergency communications
   C. Formal message traffic
   D. National Traffic System messages

3AB-6-1.2 What is one reason for using tactical call signs such
as "command post" or "weather center" during an emergency?
   A. They keep the general public informed about what is going
on
   B. They promote efficiency and coordination in public-service
communications activities
   C. They are required by the FCC
   D. They promote goodwill among amateurs

3AB-6-2.1 What is the term used to describe messages sent into or
out of a disaster area that pertain to a person's well being?
   A. Emergency traffic
   B. Tactical traffic
   C. Formal message traffic
   D. Health and welfare traffic

3AB-6-3.1 Why is it important to provide a means of operating
your amateur station separate from the commercial AC power lines?
   A. So that you can take your station mobile
   B. So that you can provide communications in an emergency
   C. So that you can operate field day
   D. So that you will comply with Subpart 97.169 of the FCC
Rules

3AB-6-3.2 Which type of antenna would be a good choice as part of
a portable HF amateur station that could be set up in case of a
communications emergency?
   A. A three-element quad
   B. A three-element Yagi
   C. A dipole
   D. A parabolic dish

3AC-1-1.1 What is the ++++ionosphere++++?
   A. That part of the upper atmosphere where enough ions and
free electrons exist to affect radio-wave propagation
   B. The boundary between two air masses of different
temperature and humidity, along which radio waves can travel
   C. The ball that goes on the top of a mobile whip antenna
   D. That part of the atmosphere where weather takes place

3AC-1-1.2 What is the region of the outer atmosphere that makes
long-distance radio communications possible as a result of
bending of radio waves?
   A. Troposphere
   B. Stratosphere
   C. Magnetosphere
   D. Ionosphere

3AC-1-1.3 What type of solar radiation is most responsible for
ionization in the outer atmosphere?
   A. Thermal
   B. Ionized particle
   C. Ultraviolet
   D. Microwave

3AC-1-2.1 Which ionospheric layer limits daytime radio
communications in the 80-meter wavelength band to short
distances?
   A. D layer
   B. F1 layer
   C. E layer
   D. F2 layer

3AC-1-2.2 What is the lowest ionospheric layer?
   A. The A layer
   B. The D layer
   C. The E layer
   D. The F layer

3AC-1-3.1 What is the lowest region of the ionosphere that is
useful for long-distance radio wave propagation?
   A. The D layer
   B. The E layer
   C. The F1 layer
   D. The F2 layer

3AC-1-4.1 Which layer of the ionosphere is mainly responsible for
long-distance sky-wave radio communications?
   A. D layer
   B. E layer
   C. F1 layer
   D. F2 layer

3AC-1-4.2 What are the two distinct sub-layers of the F layer of
the ionosphere during the daytime?
   A. Troposphere and stratosphere
   B. F1 and F2
   C. Electrostatic and electromagnetic
   D. D and E

3AC-1-4.3 Which two daytime ionospheric layers combine into one
layer at night?
   A. E and F1
   B. D and E
   C. F1 and F2
   D. E1 and E2

3AC-2.1 Which layer of the ionosphere is most responsible for
absorption of radio signals during daylight hours?
   A. The E layer
   B. The F1 layer
   C. The F2 layer
   D. The D layer

3AC-2.2 When is ionospheric absorption most pronounced?
   A. When tropospheric ducting occurs
   B. When radio waves enter the D layer at low angles
   C. When radio waves travel to the F layer
   D. When a temperature inversion occurs

3AC-2.3 During daylight hours, what effect does the D layer of
the ionosphere have on 80-meter radio waves?
   A. The D layer absorbs the signals
   B. The D layer bends the radio waves out into space
   C. The D layer refracts the radio waves back to earth
   D. The D layer has little or no effect on 80-meter radio wave
propagation

3AC-2.4 What causes ++++ionospheric absorption++++ of radio waves?
   A. A lack of D layer ionization
   B. D layer ionization
   C. The presence of ionized clouds in the E layer
   D. Splitting of the F layer

3AC-3.1 What is usually the condition of the ionosphere just
before sunrise?
   A. Atmospheric attenuation is at a maximum
   B. Ionization is at a maximum
   C. The E layer is above the F layer
   D. Ionization is at a minimum

3AC-3.2 At what time of day does maximum ionization of the
ionosphere occur?
   A. Dusk
   B. Midnight
   C. Midday
   D. Dawn

3AC-3.3 Minimum ionization of the ionosphere occurs daily at what
time?
   A. Shortly before dawn
   B. Just after noon
   C. Just after dusk
   D. Shortly before midnight

3AC-3.4 When is E layer ionization at a maximum?
   A. Dawn
   B. Midday
   C. Dusk
   D. Midnight

3AC-4.1 What is the name for the highest radio frequency that
will be refracted back to earth?
   A. Lowest usable frequency
   B. Optimum working frequency
   C. Ultra high frequency
   D. Critical frequency

3AC-4.2 What causes the ++++maximum usable frequency++++ to vary?
   A. Variations in the temperature of the air at ionospheric
levels
   B. Upper-atmospheric wind patterns
   C. The amount of ultraviolet and other types of radiation
received from the sun
   D. Presence of ducting

3AC-4.3 What does the term ++++maximum usable frequency++++ refer to?
   A. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach
its destination in a single hop
   B. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to reach
its destination in a single hop
   C. The maximum frequency that allows a radio signal to be
absorbed in the lowest ionospheric layer
   D. The minimum frequency that allows a radio signal to be
absorbed in the lowest ionospheric layer

3AC-5.1 When two stations are within each other's skip zone on
the frequency being used, what mode of propagation would it be
desirable to use?
   A. Ground wave propagation
   B. Sky wave propagation
   C. Scatter-mode propagation
   D. Ionospheric ducting propagation

3AC-5.2 You are in contact with a distant station and are
operating at a frequency close to the maximum usable frequency.
If the received signals are weak and somewhat distorted, what
type of propagation are you probably experiencing?
   A. Tropospheric ducting
   B. Line-of-sight propagation
   C. Backscatter propagation
   D. Waveguide propagation

3AC-6.1 What is the transmission path of a wave that travels
directly from the transmitting antenna to the receiving antenna
called?
   A. Line of sight
   B. The sky wave
   C. The linear wave
   D. The plane wave

3AC-6.2 How are VHF signals within the range of the visible
horizon propagated?
   A. By sky wave
   B. By direct wave
   C. By plane wave
   D. By geometric wave

3AC-7.1 Ducting occurs in which region of the atmosphere?
   A. F2
   B. Ionosphere
   C. Troposphere
   D. Stratosphere

3AC-7.2 What effect does tropospheric bending have on 2-meter
radio waves?
   A. It increases the distance over which they can be
transmitted
   B. It decreases the distance over which they can be
transmitted
   C. It tends to garble 2-meter phone transmissions
   D. It reverses the sideband of 2-meter phone transmissions

3AC-7.3 What atmospheric phenomenon causes tropospheric ducting
of radio waves?
   A. A very low pressure area
   B. An aurora to the north
   C. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station
   D. A temperature inversion

3AC-7.4 Tropospheric ducting occurs as a result of what
phenomenon?
   A. A temperature inversion
   B. Sun spots
   C. An aurora to the north
   D. Lightning between the transmitting and receiving station

3AC-7.5 What atmospheric phenomenon causes VHF radio waves to be
propagated several hundred miles through stable air masses over
oceans?
   A. Presence of a maritime polar air mass
   B. A widespread temperature inversion
   C. An overcast of cirriform clouds
   D. Atmospheric pressure of roughly 29 inches of mercury or
higher

3AC-7.6 In what frequency range does tropospheric ducting occur
most often?
   A. LF
   B. MF
   C. HF
   D. VHF

3AD-1-1.1 Where should the green wire in an AC line cord be
attached in a power supply?
   A. To the fuse
   B. To the "hot" side of the power switch
   C. To the chassis
   D. To the meter

3AD-1-1.2 Where should the black (or red) wire in a three-wire
line cord be attached in a power supply?
   A. To the filter capacitor
   B. To the DC ground
   C. To the chassis
   D. To the fuse

3AD-1-1.3 Where should the white wire in a three-wire line cord
be attached in a power supply?
   A. To the side of the transformer's primary winding that has a
fuse
   B. To the side of the transformer's primary winding without a
fuse
   C. To the black wire
   D. To the rectifier junction

3AD-1-1.4 Why is the retaining screw in one terminal of a light
socket made of brass while the other one is silver colored?
   A. To prevent galvanic action
   B. To indicate correct wiring polarity
   C. To better conduct current
   D. To reduce skin effect

3AD-1-2.1 How much electrical current flowing through the human
body is usually fatal?
   A. As little as 100 milliamperes may be fatal
   B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be fatal
   C. More than 20 amperes is needed to kill a human being
   D. No amount of current will harm you. Voltages of over 2000
volts are always fatal, however

3AD-1-2.2 What is the minimum voltage considered to be dangerous
to humans?
   A. 30 volts
   B. 100 volts
   C. 1000 volts
   D. 2000 volts

3AD-1-2.3 How much electrical current flowing through the human
body is usually painful?
   A. As little as 50 milliamperes may be painful
   B. Approximately 10 amperes is required to be painful
   C. More than 20 amperes is needed to be painful to a human
being
   D. No amount of current will be painful. Voltages of over 2000
volts are always painful, however

3AD-1-3.1 Where should the main power-line switch for a high
voltage power supply be situated?
   A. Inside the cabinet, to interrupt power when the cabinet is
opened
   B. On the rear panel of the high-voltage supply
   C. Where it can be seen and reached easily
   D. This supply should not be switch-operated

3AD-2-1.1 How is a voltmeter typically connected to a circuit
under test?
   A. In series with the circuit
   B. In parallel with the circuit
   C. In quadrature with the circuit
   D. In phase with the circuit

3AD-2-2.1 How can the range of a voltmeter be extended?
   A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
   B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under
test
   C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
   D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

3AD-3-1.1 How is an ammeter typically connected to a circuit
under test?
   A. In series with the circuit
   B. In parallel with the circuit
   C. In quadrature with the circuit
   D. In phase with the circuit

3AD-3-2.1 How can the range of an ammeter be extended?
   A. By adding resistance in series with the circuit under test
   B. By adding resistance in parallel with the circuit under
test
   C. By adding resistance in series with the meter
   D. By adding resistance in parallel with the meter

3AD-4.1 What is a ++++multimeter++++?
   A. An instrument capable of reading SWR and power
   B. An instrument capable of reading resistance, capacitance
and inductance
   C. An instrument capable of reading resistance and reactance
   D. An instrument capable of reading voltage, current and
resistance

3AD-5-1.1 Where in the antenna transmission line should a peak-reading
wattmeter be attached to determine the transmitter output
power?
   A. At the transmitter output
   B. At the antenna feed point
   C. One-half wavelength from the antenna feed point
   D. One-quarter wavelength from the transmitter output

3AD-5-1.2 For the most accurate readings of transmitter output
power, where should the RF wattmeter be inserted?
   A. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
one-quarter wavelength from the antenna feed point
   B. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output measured
one-half wavelength from the antenna feed point
   C. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
measured at the transmitter antenna jack
   D. The wattmeter should be inserted and the output power
measured at the Transmatch output

3AD-5-1.3 At what line impedance are RF wattmeters usually
designed to operate?
   A. 25 ohms
   B. 50 ohms
   C. 100 ohms
   D. 300 ohms

3AD-5-1.4 What is a ++++directional wattmeter++++?
   A. An instrument that measures forward or reflected power
   B. An instrument that measures the directional pattern of an
antenna
   C. An instrument that measures the energy consumed by the
transmitter
   D. An instrument that measures thermal heating in a load
resistor

3AD-5-2.1 If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 90 watts
forward power and 10 watts reflected power, what is the actual
transmitter output power?
   A. 10 watts
   B. 80 watts
   C. 90 watts
   D. 100 watts

3AD-5-2.2 If a directional RF wattmeter indicates 96 watts
forward power and 4 watts reflected power, what is the actual
transmitter output power?
   A. 80 watts
   B. 88 watts
   C. 92 watts
   D. 100 watts

3AD-6.1 What is a ++++marker generator++++?
   A. A high-stability oscillator that generates a series of
reference signals at known frequency intervals
   B. A low-stability oscillator that "sweeps" through a band of
frequencies
   C. An oscillator often used in aircraft to determine the
craft's location relative to the inner and outer markers at
airports
   D. A high-stability oscillator whose output frequency and
amplitude can be varied over a wide range

3AD-6.2 What type of circuit is used to inject a frequency
calibration signal into a communications receiver?
   A. A product detector
   B. A receiver incremental tuning circuit
   C. A balanced modulator
   D. A crystal calibrator

3AD-6.3 How is a ++++marker generator++++ used?
   A. To calibrate the tuning dial on a receiver
   B. To calibrate the volume control on a receiver
   C. To test the amplitude linearity of an SSB transmitter
   D. To test the frequency deviation of an FM transmitter

3AD-7.1 What piece of test equipment produces a stable, low-level
signal that can be set to a specific frequency?
   A. A wavemeter
   B. A reflectometer
   C. A signal generator
   D. A balanced modulator

3AD-7.2 What is an ++++RF signal generator++++ commonly used for?
   A. Measuring RF signal amplitude
   B. Aligning receiver tuned circuits
   C. Adjusting the transmitter impedance-matching network
   D. Measuring transmission line impedance

3AD-8-1.1 What is a ++++reflectometer++++?
   A. An instrument used to measure signals reflected from the
ionosphere
   B. An instrument used to measure radiation resistance
   C. An instrument used to measure transmission-line impedance
   D. An instrument used to measure standing wave ratio

3AD-8-1.2 What is the device that can indicate an impedance
mismatch in an antenna system?
   A. A field-strength meter
   B. A set of lecher wires
   C. A wavemeter
   D. A reflectometer

3AD-8-2.1 For best accuracy when adjusting the impedance match
between an antenna and feed line, where should the match-
indicating device be inserted?
   A. At the antenna feed point
   B. At the transmitter
   C. At the midpoint of the feed line
   D. Anywhere along the feed line

3AD-8-2.2 Where should a reflectometer be inserted into a long
antenna transmission line in order to obtain the most valid
standing wave ratio indication?
   A. At any quarter-wavelength interval along the transmission
line
   B. At the receiver end
   C. At the antenna end
   D. At any even half-wavelength interval along the transmission
line

3AD-9.1 When adjusting a transmitter filter circuit, what device
is connected to the transmitter output?
   A. A multimeter
   B. A set of Litz wires
   C. A receiver
   D. A dummy antenna

3AD-9.2 What is a ++++dummy antenna++++?
   A. An isotropic radiator
   B. A nonradiating load for a transmitter
   C. An antenna used as a reference for gain measurements
   D. The image of an antenna, located below ground

3AD-9.3 Of what materials may a dummy antenna be made?
   A. A wire-wound resistor
   B. A diode and resistor combination
   C. A noninductive resistor
   D. A coil and capacitor combination

3AD-9.4 What station accessory is used in place of an antenna
during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated?
   A. A Transmatch
   B. A dummy antenna
   C. A low-pass filter
   D. A decoupling resistor

3AD-9.5 What is the purpose of a ++++dummy load++++?
   A. To allow off-the-air transmitter testing
   B. To reduce output power for QRP operation
   C. To give comparative signal reports
   D. To allow Transmatch tuning without causing interference

3AD-9.6 How many watts should a dummy load for use with a 100-
watt single-sideband phone transmitter with 50 ohm output be able
to dissipate?
   A. A minimum of 100 watts continuous
   B. A minimum of 141 watts continuous
   C. A minimum of 175 watts continuous
   D. A minimum of 200 watts continuous

3AD-10.1 What is an ++++S-meter++++?
   A. A meter used to measure sideband suppression
   B. A meter used to measure spurious emissions from a
transmitter
   C. A meter used to measure relative signal strength in a
receiver
   D. A meter used to measure solar flux

3AD-10.2 A meter that is used to measure relative signal strength
in a receiver is known as what?
   A. An S-meter
   B. An RST-meter
   C. A signal deviation meter
   D. An SSB meter

3AD-11-1.1 Large amounts of RF energy may cause damage to body
tissue, depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy
density of the RF field, and other factors.  How does RF energy
effect body tissue?
   A. It causes radiation poisoning
   B. It heats the tissue
   C. It cools the tissue
   D. It produces genetic changes in the tissue

3AD-11-1.2 Which body organ is most susceptible to damage from
the heating effects of radio frequency radiation?
   A. Eyes
   B. Hands
   C. Heart
   D. Liver

3AD-11-2.1 Scientists have devoted a great deal of effort to
determine safe RF exposure limits.  What organization has
established an RF protection guide?
   A. The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
   B. The American Radio Relay League
   C. The Environmental Protection Agency
   D. The American National Standards Institute

3AD-11-2.2 What is the purpose of the ANSI RF protection guide?
   A. It protects you from unscrupulous radio dealers
   B. It sets RF exposure limits under certain circumstances
   C. It sets transmitter power limits
   D. It sets antenna height requirements

3AD-11-2.3 The American National Standards Institute RF
protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain
circumstances.  In what frequency range is the maximum exposure
level the most stringent (lowest)?
   A. 3 to 30 MHz
   B. 30 to 300 MHz
   C. 300 to 3000 MHz
   D. Above 1.5 GHz

3AD-11-2.4 The American National Standards Institute RF
protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain
circumstances.  Why is the maximum exposure level the most
stringent (lowest) in the ranges between 30 MHz and 300 MHz?
   A. There are fewer transmitters operating in this frequency
range
   B. There are more transmitters operating in this frequency
range
   C. Most transmissions in this frequency range are for an
extended time
   D. Human body lengths are close to whole-body resonance in
that range

3AD-11-2.5 The American National Standards Institute RF
protection guide sets RF exposure limits under certain
circumstances.  What is the maximum safe power output to the
antenna terminal of a hand-held VHF or UHF radio, as set by this
RF protection guide?
   A. 125 milliwatts
   B. 7 watts
   C. 10 watts
   D. 25 watts

3AD-11-3.1 After you make internal tuning adjustments to your VHF
power amplifier, what should you do before you turn the amplifier
on?
   A. Remove all amplifier shielding to ensure maximum cooling
   B. Connect a noise bridge to eliminate any interference
   C. Be certain all amplifier shielding is fastened in place
   D. Be certain no antenna is attached so that you will not
cause any interference

3AE-1-1.1 What is meant by the term ++++resistance++++?
   A. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
circuit containing inductance
   B. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
circuit containing capacitance
   C. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
circuit containing reactance
   D. The opposition to the flow of current in an electric
circuit that does not contain reactance

3AE-1-2.1 What is an ++++ohm++++?
   A. The basic unit of resistance
   B. The basic unit of capacitance
   C. The basic unit of inductance
   D. The basic unit of admittance

3AE-1-2.2 What is the unit measurement of resistance?
   A. Volt
   B. Ampere
   C. Joule
   D. Ohm

3AE-1-3.1 Two equal-value resistors are connected in series.  How
does the total resistance of this combination compare with the
value of either resistor by itself?
   A. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
   B. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
   C. The total resistance is the same as the value of either
resistor
   D. The total resistance is the square of the value of either
resistor

3AE-1-3.2 How does the total resistance of a string of series-
connected resistors compare to the values of the individual
resistors?
   A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of all the
individual resistor values
   B. The total resistance is the square root of the sum of the
individual resistor values
   C. The total resistance is the sum of the squares of the
individual resistor values
   D. The total resistance is the sum of all the individual
resistance values

3AE-1-4.1 Two equal-value resistors are connected in parallel.
How does the total resistance of this combination compare with
the value of either resistor by itself?
   A. The total resistance is twice the value of either resistor
   B. The total resistance is half the value of either resistor
   C. The total resistance is the square of the value of either
resistor
   D. The total resistance is the same as the value of either
resistor

3AE-1-4.2 How does the total resistance of a string of parallel-
connected resistors compare to the values of the individual
resistors?
   A. The total resistance is the square of the sum of the
resistor values
   B. The total resistance is more than the highest-value
resistor in the combination
   C. The total resistance is less than the smallest-value
resistor in the combination
   D. The total resistance is the same as the highest-value
resistor in the combination

3AE-2.1 What is ++++Ohm's Law++++?
   A. A mathematical relationship between resistance, voltage and
power in a circuit
   B. A mathematical relationship between current, resistance and
power in a circuit
   C. A mathematical relationship between current, voltage and
power in a circuit
   D. A mathematical relationship between resistance, current and
applied voltage in a circuit

3AE-2.2 How is the current in a DC circuit calculated when the
voltage and resistance are known?
   A. I = E / R
   B. P = I X E
   C. I = R X E
   D. I = E X R

3AE-2.3 What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt
battery supplies 0.25 amperes to it?
   A. 0.02 ohms
   B. 3 ohms
   C. 48 ohms
   D. 480 ohms

3AE-2.4 The product of the current and what force gives the
electrical power in a circuit?
   A. Magnetomotive force
   B. Centripetal force
   C. Electrochemical force
   D. Electromotive force

3AE-2.5 What is the input resistance of a load when a 12-volt
battery supplies 0.15 amperes to it?
   A. 8 ohms
   B. 80 ohms
   C. 100 ohms
   D. 800 ohms

3AE-2.6 When 120 volts is measured across a 4700-ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?
   A. 39 amperes
   B. 3.9 amperes
   C. 0.26 ampere
   D. 0.026 ampere

3AE-2.7 When 120 volts is measured across a 47000-ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?
   A. 392 A
   B. 39.2 A
   C. 26 mA
   D. 2.6 mA

3AE-2.8 When 12 volts is measured across a 4700-ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?
   A. 2.6 mA
   B. 26 mA
   C. 39.2 A
   D. 392 A

3AE-2.9 When 12 volts is measured across a 47000-ohm resistor,
approximately how much current is flowing through it?
   A. 255 uA
   B. 255 mA
   C. 3917 mA
   D. 3917 A

3AE-3-1.1 What is the term used to describe the ability of a
component to store energy in a magnetic field?
   A. Admittance
   B. Capacitance
   C. Inductance
   D. Resistance

3AE-3-2.1 What is the basic unit of inductance?
   A. Coulomb
   B. Farad
   C. Henry
   D. Ohm

3AE-3-2.2 What is a ++++henry++++?
   A. The basic unit of admittance
   B. The basic unit of capacitance
   C. The basic unit of inductance
   D. The basic unit of resistance

3AE-3-2.3 What is a ++++microhenry++++?
   A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-12/ henrys
   B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-6/ henrys
   C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-3/ henrys
   D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\6/ henrys

3AE-3-2.4 What is a ++++millihenry++++?
   A. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-12/ henrys
   B. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-6/ henrys
   C. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\-3/ henrys
   D. A basic unit of inductance equal to 10\6/ henrys

3AE-3-3.1 Two equal-value inductors are connected in series.  How
does the total inductance of this combination compare with the
value of either inductor by itself?
   A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
   B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
   C. The total inductance is equal to the value of either
inductor
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
inductances

3AE-3-3.2 How does the total inductance of a string of series-
connected inductors compare to the values of the individual
inductors?
   A. The total inductance is equal to the average of all the
individual inductances
   B. The total inductance is equal to less than the value of the
smallest inductance
   C. The total inductance is equal to the sum of all the
individual inductances
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
inductances

3AE-3-4.1 Two equal-value inductors are connected in parallel.
How does the total inductance of this combination compare with
the value of either inductor by itself?
   A. The total inductance is half the value of either inductor
   B. The total inductance is twice the value of either inductor
   C. The total inductance is equal to the square of either
inductance
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
inductances

3AE-3-4.2 How does the total inductance of a string of parallel-
connected inductors compare to the values of the individual
inductors?
   A. The total inductance is equal to the sum of the inductances
in the combination
   B.  The total inductance is less than the smallest inductance
value in the combination
   C. The total inductance is equal to the average of the
inductances in the combination
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
inductances

3AE-4-1.1 What is the term used to describe the ability of a
component to store energy in an electric field?
   A. Capacitance
   B. Inductance
   C. Resistance
   D. Tolerance

3AE-4-2.1 What is the basic unit of capacitance?
   A. Farad
   B. Ohm
   C. Volt
   D. Ampere

3AE-4-2.2 What is a ++++microfarad++++?
   A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-12/ farads
   B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-6/ farads
   C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-2/ farads
   D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\6/ farads

3AE-4-2.3 What is a ++++picofarad++++?
   A. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-12/ farads
   B. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-6/ farads
   C. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\-2/ farads
   D. A basic unit of capacitance equal to 10\6/ farads

3AE-4-2.4 What is a ++++farad++++?
   A. The basic unit of resistance
   B. The basic unit of capacitance
   C. The basic unit of inductance
   D. The basic unit of admittance

3AE-4-3.1 Two equal-value capacitors are connected in series.
How does the total capacitance of this combination compare with
the value of either capacitor by itself?
   A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either
capacitor
   B. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either
capacitor
   C. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
capacitances

3AE-4-3.2 How does the total capacitance of a string of series-
connected capacitors compare to the values of the individual
capacitors?
   A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the
capacitances in the combination
   B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of
capacitance in the combination
   C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the
capacitances in the combination
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
capacitances

3AE-4-4.1 Two equal-value capacitors are connected in parallel.
How does the total capacitance of this combination compare with
the value of either capacitor by itself?
   A. The total capacitance is twice the value of either
capacitor
   B. The total capacitance is half the value of either capacitor
   C. The total capacitance is equal to the value of either
capacitor
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
capacitances

3AE-4-4.2 How does the total capacitance of a string of parallel-
connected capacitors compare to the values of the individual
capacitors?
   A. The total capacitance is equal to the sum of the
capacitances in the combination
   B. The total capacitance is less than the smallest value of
capacitance in the combination
   C. The total capacitance is equal to the average of the
capacitances in the combination
   D. No comparison can be made without knowing the exact
capacitances

3AF-1-1.1 What are the four common types of resistor
construction?
   A. Carbon-film, metal-film, micro-film and wire-film
   B. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, metal-film and wire-wound
   C. Carbon-composition, carbon-film, electrolytic and metal-
film
   D. Carbon-film, ferrite, carbon-composition and metal-film

3AF-1-2.1 What is the primary function of a resistor?
   A. To store an electric charge
   B. To store a magnetic field
   C. To match a high-impedance source to a low-impedance load
   D. To limit the current in an electric circuit

3AF-1-2.2 What is a ++++variable resistor++++?
   A. A resistor that changes value when an AC voltage is applied
to it
   B. A device that can transform a variable voltage into a
constant voltage
   C. A resistor with a slide or contact that makes the
resistance adjustable
   D. A resistor that changes value when it is heated

3AF-1-3.1 What do the first three color bands on a resistor
indicate?
   A. The value of the resistor in ohms
   B. The resistance tolerance in percent
   C. The power rating in watts
   D. The value of the resistor in henrys

3AF-1-3.2 How can a carbon resistor's electrical tolerance rating
be found?
   A. By using a wavemeter
   B. By using the resistor's color code
   C. By using Thevenin's theorem for resistors
   D. By using the Baudot code

3AF-1-3.3 What does the fourth color band on a resistor indicate?
   A. The value of the resistor in ohms
   B. The resistance tolerance in percent
   C. The power rating in watts
   D. The resistor composition

3AF-1-3.4 When the color bands on a group of resistors indicate
that they all have the same resistance, what further information
about each resistor is needed in order to select those that have
nearly equal value?
   A. The working voltage rating of each resistor
   B. The composition of each resistor
   C. The tolerance of each resistor
   D. The current rating of each resistor

3AF-1-4.1 Why do resistors generate heat?
   A. They convert electrical energy to heat energy
   B. They exhibit reactance
   C. Because of skin effect
   D. To produce thermionic emission

3AF-1-4.2 Why would a large size resistor be substituted for a
smaller one of the same resistance?
   A. To obtain better response
   B. To obtain a higher current gain
   C. To increase power dissipation capability
   D. To produce a greater parallel impedance

3AF-1-5.1 What is the symbol used to represent a fixed resistor
on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-1-5.2 What is the symbol used to represent a variable
resistor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-2-1.1 What is an inductor ++++core++++?
   A. The point at which an inductor is tapped to produce
resonance
   B. A tight coil of wire used in a transformer
   C. An insulating material placed between the plates of an
inductor
   D. The central portion of a coil; may be made from air, iron,
brass or other material

3AF-2-1.2 What are the component parts of a coil?
   A. The wire in the winding and the core material
   B. Two conductive plates and an insulating material
   C. Two or more layers of silicon material
   D. A donut-shaped iron core and a layer of insulating tape

3AF-2-1.3 Describe an ++++inductor++++.
   A. A semiconductor in a conducting shield
   B. Two parallel conducting plates
   C. A straight wire conductor mounted inside a Faraday shield
   D. A coil of conducting wire

3AF-2-1.4 For radio frequency power applications, which type of
inductor has the least amount of loss?
   A. Magnetic wire
   B. Iron core
   C. Air core
   D. Slug tuned

3AF-2-2.1 What is an ++++inductor++++?
   A. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric
field
   B. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a
lower voltage
   C. An electronic component that opposes DC while allowing AC
to pass
   D. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic
field

3AF-2-2.2 What are the electrical properties of an inductor?
    A. An inductor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes
a change in voltage
    B. An inductor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes
a change in current
    C. An inductor stores a charge electromagnetically and
opposes a change in current
    D. An inductor stores a charge electromechanically and
opposes a change in voltage

3AF-2-3.1 What factors determine the amount of inductance in a
coil?
   A. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the
core and whether the coil is mounted horizontally or vertically
   B. The diameter of the core, the number of turns of wire used
to wind the coil and the type of metal used in the wire
   C. The type of material used in the core, the number of turns
used to wind the core and the frequency of the current through
the coil
   D. The type of material used in the core, the diameter of the
core, the length of the coil and the number of turns of wire used
to wind the coil

3AF-2-3.2 What can be done to raise the inductance of a 5-
microhenry air-core coil to a 5-millihenry coil with the same
physical dimensions?
   A. The coil can be wound on a non-conducting tube
   B. The coil can be wound on an iron core
   C. Both ends of the coil can be brought around to form the
shape of a donut, or toroid
   D. The coil can be made of a heavier-gauge wire

3AF-2-3.3 As an iron core is inserted in a coil, what happens to
the inductance?
   A. It increases
   B. It decreases
   C. It stays the same
   D. It becomes voltage-dependent

3AF-2-3.4 As a brass core is inserted in a coil, what happens to
the inductance?
   A. It increases
   B. It decreases
   C. It stays the same
   D. It becomes voltage-dependent

3AF-2-4.1 What is the symbol used to represent an adjustable
inductor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-2-4.2 What is  the symbol used to represent an iron-core
inductor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-2-4.3 What is the symbol used to represent an inductor wound
over a toroidal core on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-3-1.1 What is a capacitor ++++dielectric++++?
   A. The insulating material used for the plates
   B. The conducting material used between the plates
   C. The ferrite material that the plates are mounted on
   D. The insulating material between the plates

3AF-3-1.2 What are the component parts of a capacitor?
   A. Two or more conductive plates with an insulating material
between them
   B. The wire used in the winding and the core material
   C. Two or more layers of silicon material
   D. Two insulating plates with a conductive material between
them

3AF-3-1.3 What is an ++++electrolytic capacitor++++?
   A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
   B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of
mica insulation
   C. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates
through electrochemical action
   D. A capacitor whose value varies with applied voltage

3AF-3-1.4 What is a ++++paper capacitor++++?
   A. A capacitor whose plates are formed on a thin ceramic layer
   B. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a thin strip of
mica insulation
   C. A capacitor whose plates are separated by a layer of paper
   D. A capacitor whose dielectric is formed on one set of plates
through electrochemical action

3AF-3-2.1 What is a ++++capacitor++++?
   A. An electronic component that stores energy in a magnetic
field
   B. An electronic component that stores energy in an electric
field
   C. An electronic component that converts a high voltage to a
lower voltage
   D. An electronic component that converts power into heat

3AF-3-2.2 What are the electrical properties of a capacitor?
   A. A capacitor stores a charge electrochemically and opposes a
change in current
   B. A capacitor stores a charge electromagnetically and opposes
a change in current
   C. A capacitor stores a charge electromechanically and opposes
a change in voltage
   D. A capacitor stores a charge electrostatically and opposes a
change in voltage

3AF-3-2.3 What factors must be considered when selecting a
capacitor for a circuit?
   A. Type of capacitor, capacitance and voltage rating
   B. Type of capacitor, capacitance and the kilowatt-hour rating
   C. The amount of capacitance, the temperature coefficient and
the KVA rating
   D. The type of capacitor, the microscopy coefficient and the
temperature coefficient

3AF-3-2.4 How are the characteristics of a capacitor usually
specified?
   A. In volts and amperes
   B. In microfarads and volts
   C. In ohms and watts
   D. In millihenrys and amperes

3AF-3-3.1 What factors determine the amount of capacitance in a
capacitor?
   A. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates,
the area of one side of one plate, the separation between the
plates and the number of plates
   B. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates,
the number of plates and the diameter of the leads connected to
the plates
   C. The number of plates, the spacing between the plates and
whether the dielectric material is N type or P type
   D. The dielectric constant of the material between the plates,
the surface area of one side of one plate, the number of plates
and the type of material used for the protective coating

3AF-3-3.2 As the plate area of a capacitor is increased, what
happens to its capacitance?
   A. Decreases
   B. Increases
   C. Stays the same
   D. Becomes voltage dependent

3AF-3-3.3 As the plate spacing of a capacitor is increased, what
happens to its capacitance?
   A. Increases
   B. Stays the same
   C. Becomes voltage dependent
   D. Decreases

3AF-3-4.1 What is the symbol used to represent an electrolytic
capacitor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AF-3-4.2 What is the symbol used to represent a variable
capacitor on schematic diagrams [see graphics addendum]?
   A. 1
   B. 2
   C. 3
   D. 4

3AG-1-1.1 Which frequencies are attenuated by a low-pass filter?
   A. Those above its cut-off frequency
   B. Those within its cut-off frequency
   C. Those within 50 kHz on either side of its cut-off frequency
   D. Those below its cut-off frequency

3AG-1-1.2 What circuit passes electrical energy below a certain
frequency and blocks electrical energy above that frequency?
   A. A band-pass filter
   B. A high-pass filter
   C. An input filter
   D. A low-pass filter

3AG-1-2.1 Why does virtually every modern transmitter have a
built-in low-pass filter connected to its output?
   A. To attenuate frequencies below its cutoff point
   B. To attenuate low frequency interference to other amateurs
   C. To attenuate excess harmonic radiation
   D. To attenuate excess fundamental radiation

3AG-1-2.2 You believe that excess harmonic radiation from your
transmitter is causing interference to your television receiver.
What is one possible solution for this problem?
   A. Install a low-pass filter on the television receiver
   B. Install a low-pass filter at the transmitter output
   C. Install a high-pass filter on the transmitter output
   D. Install a band-pass filter on the television receiver

3AG-2-1.1 What circuit passes electrical energy above a certain
frequency and attenuates electrical energy below that frequency?
   A. A band-pass filter
   B. A high-pass filter
   C. An input filter
   D. A low-pass filter

3AG-2-2.1 Where is the proper place to install a high-pass
filter?
   A. At the antenna terminals of a television receiver
   B. Between a transmitter and a Transmatch
   C. Between a Transmatch and the transmission line
   D. On a transmitting antenna

3AG-2-2.2 Your Amateur Radio transmissions cause interference to
your television receiver even though you have installed a low-
pass filter at the transmitter output.  What is one possible
solution for this problem?
   A. Install a high-pass filter at the transmitter terminals
   B. Install a high-pass filter at the television antenna
terminals
   C. Install a low-pass filter at the television antenna
terminals also
   D. Install a band-pass filter at the television antenna
terminals

3AG-3-1.1 What circuit attenuates electrical energy above a
certain frequency and below a lower frequency?
   A. A band-pass filter
   B. A high-pass filter
   C. An input filter
   D. A low-pass filter

3AG-3-1.2 What general range of RF energy does a band-pass filter
reject?
   A. All frequencies above a specified frequency
   B. All frequencies below a specified frequency
   C. All frequencies above the upper limit of the band in
question
   D. All frequencies above a specified frequency and below a
lower specified frequency

3AG-3-2.1 The IF stage of a communications receiver uses a filter
with a peak response at the intermediate frequency.  What term
describes this filter response?
   A. A band-pass filter
   B. A high-pass filter
   C. An input filter
   D. A low-pass filter

3AG-4-1.1 What circuit is likely to be found in all types of
receivers?
   A. An audio filter
   B. A beat frequency oscillator
   C. A detector
   D. An RF amplifier

3AG-4-1.2 What type of transmitter does the block diagram
represent [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
   B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter
   C. A single-sideband transmitter
   D. A VFO-controlled transmitter

3AG-4-1.3 What type of transmitter does the block diagram
represent [see graphics addendum]?
   A. A simple packet-radio transmitter
   B. A simple crystal-controlled transmitter
   C. A single-sideband transmitter
   D. A VFO-controlled transmitter

3AG-4-1.4 What is the unlabeled block (?) in the diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. An AGC circuit
   B. A detector
   C. A power supply
   D. A VFO circuit

3AG-4-1.5 What type of device does the block diagram represent
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A double-conversion receiver
   B. A variable-frequency oscillator
   C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
   D. A simple CW transmitter

3AG-4-2.1 What type of device does the block diagram represent
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A double-conversion receiver
   B. A variable-frequency oscillator
   C. A simple superheterodyne receiver
   D. A simple FM receiver

3AG-4-2.2 What is the unlabeled block (?) in the diagram
[see graphics addendum]?
   A. A band-pass filter
   B. A crystal oscillator
   C. A reactance modulator
   D. A rectifier modulator

3AH-1.1 What is the meaning of the term ++++modulation++++?
   A. The process of varying some characteristic of a carrier
wave for the purpose of conveying information
   B. The process of recovering audio information from a received
signal
   C. The process of increasing the average power of a single-
sideband transmission
   D. The process of suppressing the carrier in a single-sideband
transmitter

3AH-2-1.1 If the modulator circuit of your FM transmitter fails,
what emission type would likely result?
   A. An unmodulated carrier wave
   B. A phase modulated carrier wave
   C. An amplitude modulated carrier wave
   D. A frequency modulated carrier wave

3AH-2-1.2 What emission does not have sidebands resulting from
modulation?
   A. AM phone
   B. Test
   C. FM phone
   D. RTTY

3AH-2-2.1 What is the FCC emission designator for a Morse code
telegraphy signal produced by switching the transmitter output on
and off?
   A. Test
   B. AM phone
   C. CW
   D. RTTY

3AH-2-2.2 What is CW?
   A. Morse code telegraphy using amplitude modulation
   B. Morse code telegraphy using frequency modulation
   C. Morse code telegraphy using phase modulation
   D. Morse code telegraphy using pulse modulation

3AH-2-3.1 What is RTTY?
   A. Amplitude-keyed telegraphy
   B. Frequency-shift-keyed telegraphy
   C. Frequency-modulated telephony
   D. Phase-modulated telephony

3AH-2-3.2 What is the emission designation for telegraphy by
frequency shift keying without the use of a modulating tone?
   A. RTTY
   B. MCW
   C. CW
   D. Single-sideband phone

3AH-2-4.1 What emission type results when an on/off keyed audio
tone is applied to the microphone input of an FM transmitter?
   A. RTTY
   B. MCW
   C. CW
   D. Single-sideband phone

3AH-2-4.2 What is tone-modulated international Morse code
telegraphy?
   A. Telephony produced by audio fed into an FM transmitter
   B. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into
a CW transmitter
   C. Telegraphy produced by on/off keying of the carrier
amplitude
   D. Telegraphy produced by an on/off keyed audio tone fed into
an FM transmitter

3AH-2-5.1 What is the emission designated as "MCW"?
   A. Frequency-modulated telegraphy using audio tones
   B. Frequency-modulated telephony
   C. Frequency-modulated facsimile using audio tones
   D. Phase-modulated television

3AH-2-5.2 In an ITU emission designator like A1A, what does the
first symbol describe?
   A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier
   B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
   C. The speed of a radiotelegraph transmission
   D. The type of the information to be transmitted

3AH-2-5.3 What emission type results when an on-off keyed
audio oscillator is connected to the microphone jack of an
FM phone transmitter?
   A. SS
   B. RTTY
   C. MCW
   D. Image

3AH-2-6.1 In an ITU emission designator like F3B, what does the
second symbol describe?
   A. The nature of the signal modulating the main carrier
   B. The type of modulation of the main carrier
   C. The type of information to be transmitted
   D. The frequency modulation index of a carrier

3AH-2-6.2 How would you transmit packet using an FM 2-meter
transceiver?
   A. Use your telegraph key to interrupt the carrier wave
   B. Modulate your FM transmitter with audio tones from a
terminal node controller
   C. Use your mike for telephony
   D. Use your touch-tone (DTMF) key pad to signal in Morse code.

3AH-2-7.1 What type of emission results when speaking into the
microphone of a 2-meter FM handheld transceiver?
   A. Amplitude modulated phone
   B. Code telegraphy
   C. An unmodulated carrier wave
   D. Frequency modulated phone

3AH-2-7.2 What emission type do most 2-meter FM transmitters
transmit?
   A. Interrupted pure carrier wave
   B. Frequency modulated phone
   C. Single-sideband voice emissions
   D. Amplitude modulated carrier waves

3AH-2-8.1 (This question has been locked out.)
What is the most important consideration when
installing a 10-meter dipole inside an attic?
   A. It will exhibit a low angle of radiation
   B. The dipole must always be run horizontally polarized
   C. It will be covered by an insulation to prevent fire and
high enough to prevent being accidentally touched during
transmission
   D. Dipoles usually don't work in attics

3AH-2-8.2 Which type of transmitter will produce a frequency
modulated carrier wave?
   A. A CW transmitter
   B. An amplitude modulated transmitter
   C. A single-sideband transmitter
   D. A phase modulated transmitter

3AH-3.1 What is the term used to describe a constant-amplitude
radio-frequency signal?
   A. An RF carrier
   B. An AF carrier
   C. A sideband carrier
   D. A subcarrier

3AH-3.2 What is another name for an unmodulated radio-frequency
signal?
   A. An AF carrier
   B. An RF carrier
   C. A sideband carrier
   D. A subcarrier

3AH-4.1 What characteristic makes FM telephony especially well-
suited for local VHF/UHF radio communications?
   A. Good audio fidelity and intelligibility under weak-signal
conditions
   B. Better rejection of multipath distortion than the AM modes
   C. Good audio fidelity and high signal-to-noise ratio above a
certain signal amplitude threshold
   D. Better carrier frequency stability than the AM modes

3AH-5.1 What emission is produced by a transmitter using a
reactance modulator?
   A. CW
   B. Unmodulated carrier
   C. Single-sideband, suppressed-carrier phone
   D. Phase modulated phone

3AH-5.2 What other emission does phase modulation most resemble?
   A. Amplitude modulation
   B. Pulse modulation
   C. Frequency modulation
   D. Single-sideband modulation

3AH-6.1 Many communications receivers have several IF filters
that can be selected by the operator.  Why do these filters have
different bandwidths?
   A. Because some ham bands are wider than others
   B. Because different bandwidths help increase the receiver
sensitivity
   C. Because different bandwidths improve S-meter readings
   D. Because some emission types occupy a wider frequency range
than others

3AH-6.2 List the following signals in order of increasing
bandwidth (narrowest signal first): CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB
voice.
   A. RTTY, CW, SSB voice, FM voice
   B. CW, FM voice, RTTY, SSB voice
   C. CW, RTTY, SSB voice, FM voice
   D. CW, SSB voice, RTTY, FM voice

3AH-7-1.1 To what is the deviation of an FM transmission
proportional?
   A. Only the frequency of the audio modulating signal
   B. The frequency and the amplitude of the audio modulating
signal
   C. The duty cycle of the audio modulating signal
   D. Only the amplitude of the audio modulating signal

3AH-7-2.1 What is the result of overdeviation in an FM
transmitter?
   A. Increased transmitter power consumption
   B. Out-of-channel emissions (splatter)
   C. Increased transmitter range
   D. Inadequate carrier suppression

3AH-7-2.2 What is ++++splatter++++?
   A. Interference to adjacent signals caused by excessive
transmitter keying speeds
   B. Interference to adjacent signals caused by improper
transmitter neutralization
   C. Interference to adjacent signals caused by overmodulation
of a transmitter
   D. Interference to adjacent signals caused by parasitic
oscillations at the antenna

3AI-1-1.1 What antenna type best strengthens signals from a
particular direction while attenuating those from other
directions?
   A. A beam antenna
   B. An isotropic antenna
   C. A monopole antenna
   D. A vertical antenna

3AI-1-1.2 What is a ++++directional antenna++++?
   A. An antenna whose parasitic elements are all constructed to
be directors
   B. An antenna that radiates in direct line-of-sight
propagation, but not skywave or skip propagation
   C. An antenna permanently mounted so as to radiate in only one
direction
   D. An antenna that radiates more strongly in some directions
than others

3AI-1-1.3 What is a ++++Yagi++++ antenna?
   A. Half-wavelength elements stacked vertically and excited in
phase
   B. Quarter-wavelength elements arranged horizontally and
excited out of phase
   C. Half-wavelength linear driven element(s) with parasitically
excited parallel linear elements
   D. Quarter-wavelength, triangular loop elements

3AI-1-1.4 What is the general configuration of the radiating
elements of a horizontally polarized Yagi?
   A. Two or more straight, parallel elements arranged in the
same horizontal plane
   B. Vertically stacked square or circular loops arranged in
parallel horizontal planes
   C. Two or more wire loops arranged in parallel vertical planes
   D. A vertical radiator arranged in the center of an effective
RF ground plane

3AI-1-1.5 What type of parasitic beam antenna uses two or more
straight metal-tubing elements arranged physically parallel to
each other?
   A. A delta loop antenna
   B. A quad antenna
   C. A Yagi antenna
   D. A Zepp antenna

3AI-1-1.6 How many directly driven elements does a Yagi antenna
have?
   A. None; they are all parasitic
   B. One
   C. Two
   D. All elements are directly driven

3AI-1-1.7 What is a ++++parasitic beam antenna++++?
   A. An antenna where the director and reflector elements
receive their RF excitation by induction or radiation from the
driven element
   B. An antenna where wave traps are used to assure magnetic
coupling among the elements
   C. An antenna where all elements are driven by direct
connection to the feed line
   D. An antenna where the driven element receives its RF
excitation by induction or radiation from the directors

3AI-1-2.1 What is a ++++cubical quad antenna++++?
   A. Four parallel metal tubes, each approximately 1/2
electrical wavelength long
   B. Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each
approximately one electrical wavelength long
   C. A vertical conductor 1/4 electrical wavelength high, fed at
the bottom
   D. A center-fed wire 1/2 electrical wavelength long

3AI-1-2.2 What kind of antenna array is composed of a square
full-wave closed loop driven element with parallel parasitic
element(s)?
   A. Delta loop
   B. Cubical quad
   C. Dual rhombic
   D. Stacked Yagi

3AI-1-2.3 Approximately how long is one side of the driven
element of a cubical quad antenna?
   A. 2 electrical wavelengths
   B. 1 electrical wavelength
   C. 1/2 electrical wavelength
   D. 1/4 electrical wavelength

3AI-1-2.4 Approximately how long is the wire in the driven
element of a cubical quad antenna?
   A. 1/4 electrical wavelength
   B. 1/2 electrical wavelength
   C. 1 electrical wavelength
   D. 2 electrical wavelengths

3AI-1-3.1 What is a ++++delta loop antenna++++?
   A. A variation of the cubical quad antenna, with triangular
elements
   B. A large copper ring, used in direction finding
   C. An antenna system composed of three vertical antennas,
arranged in a triangular shape
   D. An antenna made from several coils of wire on an insulating
form

3AI-2-1.1 To what does the term ++++horizontal++++ as applied to wave
polarization refer?
   A. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are parallel
to the earth's surface
   B. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel
to the earth's surface
   C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are
perpendicular to the earth's surface
   D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate
horizontally to the destination

3AI-2-1.2 What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical
quad antenna have when the feed point is in the center of a
horizontal side?
   A. Circular
   B. Helical
   C. Horizontal
   D. Vertical

3AI-2-1.3 What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical
quad antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's
surface and the feed point is at the bottom corner?
   A. Circular
   B. Helical
   C. Horizontal
   D. Vertical

3AI-2-2.1 What is the polarization of electromagnetic waves
radiated from a half-wavelength antenna perpendicular to the
earth's surface?
   A. Circularly polarized waves
   B. Horizontally polarized waves
   C. Parabolically polarized waves
   D. Vertically polarized waves

3AI-2-2.2 What is the electromagnetic wave polarization of most
man-made electrical noise radiation in the HF-VHF spectrum?
   A. Horizontal
   B. Left-hand circular
   C. Right-hand circular
   D. Vertical

3AI-2-2.3 To what does the term ++++vertical++++ as applied to wave
polarization refer?
   A. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are parallel
to the earth's surface
   B. The magnetic lines of force in the radio wave are
perpendicular to the earth's surface
   C. The electric lines of force in the radio wave are
perpendicular to the earth's surface
   D. The radio wave will leave the antenna and radiate
vertically into the ionosphere

3AI-2-2.4 What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical
quad antenna have when the feed point is in the center of a
vertical side?
   A. Circular
   B. Helical
   C. Horizontal
   D. Vertical

3AI-2-2.5 What electromagnetic wave polarization does a cubical
quad antenna have when all sides are at 45 degrees to the earth's
surface and the feed point is at a side corner?
   A. Circular
   B. Helical
   C. Horizontal
   D. Vertical

3AI-3-1.1 What is meant by the term ++++standing wave ratio++++?
   A. The ratio of maximum to minimum inductances on a feed line
   B. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistances on a feed line
   C. The ratio of maximum to minimum impedances on a feed line
   D. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltages on a feed line

3AI-3-1.2 What is ++++standing wave ratio++++ a measure of?
   A. The ratio of maximum to minimum voltage on a feed line
   B. The ratio of maximum to minimum reactance on a feed line
   C. The ratio of maximum to minimum resistance on a feed line
   D. The ratio of maximum to minimum sidebands on a feed line

3AI-3-2.1 What is meant by the term ++++forward power++++?
   A. The power traveling from the transmitter to the antenna
   B. The power radiated from the front of a directional antenna
   C. The power produced during the positive half of the RF cycle
   D. The power used to drive a linear amplifier

3AI-3-2.2 What is meant by the term ++++reflected power++++?
   A. The power radiated from the back of a directional antenna
   B. The power returned to the transmitter from the antenna
   C. The power produced during the negative half of the RF cycle
   D. Power reflected to the transmitter site by buildings and
trees

3AI-3-3.1 What happens to the power loss in an unbalanced feed
line as the standing wave ratio increases?
   A. It is unpredictable
   B. It becomes nonexistent
   C. It decreases
   D. It increases

3AI-3-3.2 What type of feed line is best suited to operating at a
high standing wave ratio?
   A. Coaxial cable
   B. Flat ribbon "twin lead"
   C. Parallel open-wire line
   D. Twisted pair

3AI-3-3.3 What happens to RF energy not delivered to the antenna
by a lossy coaxial cable?
   A. It is radiated by the feed line
   B. It is returned to the transmitter's chassis ground
   C. Some of it is dissipated as heat in the conductors and
dielectric
   D. It is canceled because of the voltage ratio of forward
power to reflected power in the feed line

3AI-4-1.1 What is a ++++balanced line++++?
   A. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
   B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to
balance out harmonics
   C. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at
even intervals
   D. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground

3AI-4-1.2 What is an ++++unbalanced line++++?
   A. Feed line with neither conductor connected to ground
   B. Feed line with both conductors connected to ground to
suppress harmonics
   C. Feed line with one conductor connected to ground
   D. Feed line with the outer conductor connected to ground at
uneven intervals

3AI-4-2.1 What is a ++++balanced antenna++++?
   A. A symmetrical antenna with one side of the feed point
connected to ground
   B. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is
symmetrical about the feed point
   C. A symmetrical antenna with both sides of the feed point
connected to ground, to balance out harmonics
   D. An antenna designed to be mounted in the center

3AI-4-2.2 What is an ++++unbalanced antenna++++?
   A. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is not
symmetrical about the feed point
   B. A symmetrical antenna, having neither half connected to
ground
   C. An antenna (or a driven element in an array) that is
symmetrical about the feed point
   D. A symmetrical antenna with both halves coupled to ground at
uneven intervals

3AI-4-3.1 What device can be installed on a balanced antenna so
that it can be fed through a coaxial cable?
   A. A balun
   B. A loading coil
   C. A triaxial transformer
   D. A wavetrap

3AI-4-3.2 What is a ++++balun++++?
   A. A device that can be used to convert an antenna designed to
be fed at the center so that it may be fed at one end
   B. A device that may be installed on a balanced antenna so
that it may be fed with unbalanced feed line
   C. A device that can be installed on an antenna to produce
horizontally polarized or vertically polarized waves
   D. A device used to allow an antenna to operate on more than
one band

3AI-5-1.1 List the following types of feed line in order of
increasing attenuation per 100 feet of line (list the line with
the lowest attenuation first): RG-8, RG-58, RG-174 and open-wire
line.
   A. RG-174, RG-58, RG-8, open-wire line
   B. RG-8, open-wire line, RG-58, RG-174
   C. open-wire line, RG-8, RG-58, RG-174
   D. open-wire line, RG-174, RG-58, RG-8

3AI-5-1.2 You have installed a tower 150 feet from your radio
shack, and have a 6-meter Yagi antenna on top.  Which of the
following feed lines should you choose to feed this antenna:
RG-8, RG-58, RG-59 or RG-174?
   A. RG-8
   B. RG-58
   C. RG-59
   D. RG-174

3AI-5-2.1 You have a 200-foot coil of RG-58 coaxial cable
attached to your antenna, but the antenna is only 50 feet from
your radio.  To minimize feed-line loss, what should you do with
the excess cable?
   A. Cut off the excess cable to an even number of wavelengths
long
   B. Cut off the excess cable to an odd number of wavelengths
long
   C. Cut off the excess cable
   D. Roll the excess cable into a coil a tenth of a wavelength
in diameter

3AI-5-2.2 How does feed-line length affect signal loss?
   A. The length has no effect on signal loss
   B. As length increases, signal loss increases
   C. As length decreases, signal loss increases
   D. The length is inversely proportional to signal loss

3AI-5-3.1 What is the general relationship between frequencies
passing through a feed line and the losses in the feed line?
   A. Loss is independent of frequency
   B. Loss increases with increasing frequency
   C. Loss decreases with increasing frequency
   D. There is no predictable relationship

3AI-5-3.2 As the operating frequency decreases, what happens to
conductor losses in a feed line?
   A. The losses decrease
   B. The losses increase
   C. The losses remain the same
   D. The losses become infinite

3AI-5-3.3 As the operating frequency increases, what happens to
conductor losses in a feed line?
   A. The losses decrease
   B. The losses increase
   C. The losses remain the same
   D. The losses decrease to zero

3AI-6-1.1 You are using open-wire feed line in your amateur
station.  Why should you ensure that no one can come in contact
with the feed line while you are transmitting?
   A. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will
cause a short circuit, probably damaging your transmitter
   B. Because the wire is so small they may break it
   C. Because contact with the feed line while transmitting will
cause parasitic radiation
   D. Because high RF voltages can be present on open-wire feed
line

3AI-6-2.1 How can you minimize exposure to radio frequency energy
from your transmitting antennas?
   A. Use vertical polarization
   B. Use horizontal polarization
   C. Mount the antennas where no one can come near them
   D. Mount the antenna close to the ground